an example from a dictionary (I couldn't find its source now):
(1) I didn’t see her again until a few days afterwards.
my variant:
(2) I didn’t see her again a few days afterwards.
How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?
What's the difference between (1) and (2)?
I think (2) makes sense because:
"I waited a few days" = "I waited for a few days" = "I waited over a few days".
By analogy: "I didn't see her again a few days afterwards" = "I didn't see her again for a few days afterwards" = "I didn't see her again over a few days afterwards".
Could you explain to me please why I'm wrong?
Best Answer
"A few days" is a length of time. In the right context, the "for" is understood, as in your example about waiting.
"A few days afterwards", however, is a point in time, which is why "until a few days afterwards" makes sense, but "until a few days" is nonsense. So (2) means you didn't see her again, and the point in time when you didn't see her again was a few days afterwards, which is an odd meaning, and not what (1) means.
You could use "for":
But this version carries the nuance that you chose not to see her, which "until" doesn't carry, so it still doesn't mean exactly the same as (1).
"I didn't see her again over a few days afterwards" is bad grammar because "over" is followed by a span of time (as opposed to a length of time, like "for"), and the days that followed are a specific set of days, so it would have to be:
or more naturally,
Note again here now "the next few days" is a span of time, rather than a length.