phrase-meaningphrase-usageprepositions
Consider:
To enhance insight on the ionic liquid structure, RDFs due to correlations between atomic sites on each ion were calculated.
I guess "due to" means "resulted from" here. Does it have such a meaning? Here, we have one clause. Should we expect a second clause whenever a "due to" is used?
This is another question with similar title but the contents of the question and answer don't deal with "due to" as expected here.
Yes - seized here means took [violently, by force]. And from can be read as away from, which implies Harry no longer had "possession" (he wasn't still holding it, since it was taken away).
Look at a compass rose.
Look at W for west. Now move 'southwards', which is anticlockwise1 in this case, from the point for west. Somewhere in that region is "south of due west". You would expect it to be no nearer south than it is to west, as that would be "west of due south". Conventions vary, but I would tend to interpret "south of due west" WSW, or west-south-west, which is actually due west of south west. It might mean south-west, of course, or if you use a traditional mariner's compass (the compass rose of which has another degree of subdivision, for a total of 32 points), it might mean "west by south" (WbS), the point between W and WSW. Unless you have a clear idea of what the conventions of the text are, it could be any point anticlockwise of west and not anticlockwise of south-west.
1: In this case it is anticlockwise; 'southwards' from east would be clockwise.
Best Answer
"due to" has many meaning one of which is "ascribable to". The following sentence reads as follows:
For those who can't see the meaning: