Learn English – Difference between “was to . . .” and “was to have”

auxiliary-verbsmodal-verbspast-tense

What is the difference in the meaning between following sentences:

  1. John was to have picked strawberries yesterday but the downpour made the field too muddy.

  2. John was to pick strawberries yesterday but the downpour made the field too muddy.

(Source: modified example from BBC)

I've read in Learn English BBC that the form "was to" and "was to have" is used for past plan which wasn't fullfiled.
But What I haven't understood is that these form look similar to me. I'm in a dillema which one (was to, or was to have) is used for past plan and which one is for unfullfilled past plan.

So, what is the differences between the construction was/were to … and was/were to have + past participle?

Best Answer

An infinitive X following to be means to do X at some future time because you are supposed to or scheduled to do X.

I am to go to work tomorrow. (I'm supposed to go to work tomorrow so I plan to do that).

John is to be cleaning and not playing video games. (John is supposed to be playing cleaning. This is likely John's mother telling his friend not to let him play video games.)

Infinitives can take have to specify perfect aspect.

To go to the mountains is something everyone in his family does.

To have gone to the mountains was an important thing to his family. (Implies family or mountains does not exist anymore).

I was to go to work yesterday.

I was to have gone to work yesterday. (Job or need to go doesn't exist anymore).

So the meaning of the second sentence is to have done X at some future time because you were supposed to or scheduled to have done X.

You can't do this:

I am to have gone to work yesterday. (Bad)