"Does anyone have used this before?" or "has anyone used this before?" which sentence is correct? or both of them are incorrect ? and what is the correct sentence?
Learn English – “Does anyone have used this before?” or “has anyone used this before?”
grammar
Related Solutions
Although are/were are used to form questions, they don't work with met. It should be have you met [her] before? (If these two people are both present, her is not necessary; you only need it if you're talking about someone who's not there at the time).
In questions that use subject auxiliary inversion (e.g. when You are ... becomes Are you ...?), and that don't use interrogatives (e.g. who/what/where/etc.), there is an easy way to tell whether or not you're using the correct auxiliary: simply rearrange the sentence to see if it makes sense as a statement.
For example:
Are you met before? You are met before.
-versus-
Have you met before? You have met before.
The second is the only one that makes sense. That's the easiest way to figure it out.
You do have one other option here; you could use do as the auxiliary. But in this case, it can't be used with met. You'd have to switch the verb to know for that to work. And it would need to be in the present tense. The rule that I've mentioned above still applies:
Do you met her? You do met her.
-versus-
Do you know her? You do know her.
You'll know to use know because it agrees with do in tense (i.e. both simple present).
Most often, these types of questions use have, had, or do.
Questions involving forms of to be (e.g. are/were), are generally about states of being/existential, mood/feelings/emotional states, location, and actions about to occur: (e.g. Are we going to leave now?, Are you there?, Are you mad?, Were they at the party?, etc.).
Depending on the context and temporal factors, you might be able to use did. This would make the main verb present tense though. If this is after the fact, you could instead say:
Did you meet her? You did meet her.
Did you know her [back then]? You did know her [back then].
This is basic stuff: These phrases are all in 'passive' (not 'active') voice. The verb (fitted) is 'perfect' (completed), and is preceded by auxiliary verbs that handle the tense, aspect and subject agreement. Since the subject (blinds) is plural, the first [aux] verb should not have the 's' suffix. (The 's' on the verb is a type of parity with the subject.)
There is also a type of parity which signals 'passive': the total of 'perfect' and 'possessive' verbals is odd ('are fitted' = 1 perfect; 'have been fitted' = 1 possessive + 2 perfect; 'are being fitted' = 1 perfect; 'have been being fitted' = 1 possessive + 2 perfect). Active phrases have even parity: ('fitted' = 0 perfect = 0 aux + 1 past; 'have fitted' = 1 possessive + 1 perfect; 'have been fitting' = 1 possessive + 1 perfect). Note that the very first [aux] verbal is never 'perfect', but it may be 'past' (was, had, etc).
These parities are not something that we are aware of when we talk.
Best Answer
We use "do support" to form questions and negatives only when there isn't already an auxiliary, such as be, have, or a modal.
When have is acting as a lexical verb it may take "do support":
but it doesn't have to, particularly in British English:
But when have is an auxiliary, forming a perfect tense, it cannot take "do support":
not
(You didn't ask about this, but it's worth specifying:) in the phrasal verb have to, meaning be obliged to", have is not an auxiliary, and may take "do support" in questions and negatives:
or
You might even find I haven't to go in old books, but I doubt if there's anybody that says it now.