In a programming site, someone just wrote:
I cannot seem to get them both to find their relevant objects.
It seems I've heard something similar before, say:
I cannot seem to find it.
With my simple-minded mind, I would think that what they really mean is:
It seems I cannot find it.
… because what they really want is not to seem to find X but really find it.
My question is: is it common to say "I can't seem to do it" when one really means "It seems I can't do it", and is it "correct" (in whatever sense that makes sense)?
[edit]
There is another question on how to use 'seem' in negative form; however, my interest is a bit different. I would like to know how native English speakers perceive the "I can't seem…" expression: for example, if someone is looking for something for quite some time, would they rather say (1) "I can't seem to find it" or (2) "It seems I can't find it"? Would (1) seem (even slightly) illogical or is it just a natural way to say it?
Best Answer
Yes, it's common, and the difference is that the first expresses a certain level of frustration, as in, "I've looked everywhere and I can't seem to find it."
The second construction would express a certain level of resignation, "It seems I can't find it, so we'll have to do without it."
The two can also be used interchangeably when the level of either frustration or resignation is low.