Learn English – Is “have to” a modal verb

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I have heard people say that "have to" is a modal verb. Other people have told me it is not. Why exactly is "have to" a modal verb? Or why exactly is it not?

I have also heard that it is a periphrastic modal verb. Is a periphrastic modal verb a modal verb?

Best Answer

There is a fixed list of modal verbs and semimodals.

Modal verbs: can, could, may, might, shall, should, will, would, and must.

Semimodals: ought + to-infinitive, have + to-infinitive, be able + to-infinitive, dare and need, had better (that is mostly classified as a compound verb), used + to-infinitive or used to + do-insertion.

While "have (got) to" isn't a modal verb, "have" is an auxiliary verb along with "be" and "do".

"Have to" or "have got to" (British English) also carries a meaning of something obligatory in the same way modal verbs do:

  • I must go to school.
  • I should go to school.
  • I have to go to school.

The way grammar says it:

"Have" is an auxiliary verb. Modal verbs are followed by infinitives without "to". In "have to", "have" is the main verb that follows a to-infinitive.

  • Have (got) to can either follow an auxiliary verb or not.

In the Simple Past and Simple Present it doesn't follow an auxiliary verb.

  • I have to read.
  • She had to play.

In the Future Simple it is preceded with an auxiliary verb "will".

  • I will have to go.

In the negative sentences it always follows an auxiliary verb.

  • I didn't have to go there. (do)
  • I won't have to be there. (will)
  • I don't have to sign this. (do)

In the interrogative sentences an auxiliary verb comes first and is followed by a subject, which is followed by "have to".

  • Did you have to go to school yesterday? (do)
  • Do you have to read this? (do)
  • Will you have to be there tomorrow? (will)

In fact we conjugate "have to" in the same way we conjugate any main verb.


Note: "have to" and "must" are both used to express a strong obligation. The difference is that with "must" this usually means that some personal circumstance makes the obligation necessary (and the speaker almost certainly agrees with the obligation.) and with "have to" this usually means that some external circumstance makes the obligation necessary.


Extra note: Remember that in the negative sentences "do not have to" suggests that someone is not required to do something while "must not" suggests that you are prohibited from doing something.

  1. It is a false assumption to say that "have to" is a modal verb of obligation.
  2. It is a false assumption to say that "have to" is a "have to + infinitive". In fact it is an auxiliary verb "have" plus a to-infinitive.

However, it is accepted by some dictionaries and sources to define "have to" as a modal verb. (Oxford Learners Dictionary, Perfect English Grammar, Ginger, LinguaPress, ThoughtCo, Woodward English)

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