I have been reading a novel (Bad for You) for the last ten days. I had read something odd, which did not sound natural to me so I landed here to get some help on it.
Bad for You
I tried hard not to let the fact Linc had been her first at something
eat me alive. I wasn’t going to date her. I didn’t date, for starters.
I tried that once, and I sucked at it. But I didn’t like sharing her
either. She was mine. No, she wasn’t. She was my friend. Boundaries. I
needed some boundaries in my head. Blythe was my friend. She made me
happy. She was not mine. She never would be because I didn’t want
someone to be mine.
My question is, can we use never before would or will? Does
it work the same way or does it have a completely different meaning here?
Examples:
She never would be because I didn’t want someone to be mine.
She would never be because I didn’t want someone to be mine.
Please check the above sentences and let me know both are fine or not?
Best Answer
Never may either precede or follow a tensed auxiliary.
The ordinary position, as you know, is after the auxiliary.
But in parallel clauses like this, never is usually placed before the auxiliary; this throws the stress onto the auxiliary and thus emphasizes the contrast in tenses.
Note that the parallel clause need not occur in the same sentence; the speaker may ‘pick up’ a phrase to parallel in the previous sentence.
The displacement is not obligatory. When the second clause is full, never may occupy its normal place; in this case, never bears the stress.
But when the auxiliary stands alone, with what follows it (the complement and/or the main verb) ellipted, the never must precede the auxiliary.
∗ marks a usage as unacceptable
† Note that in clauses where the lexical verb is be acting as a copula (linking verb), the be cannot be ellipted; these are both ungrammatical:
But when the lexical verb is be without a complement, in the sense “exist, occur”, it can be ellipted, and the rules I describe above apply: