Learn English – “there’s no risk in X” vs “there’s no risk of X” vs “there’s no risk to X”

I was correcting a question on another SE site and found the following sentence, which immediately stroke me as odd:

There's no risk to use falda in singular, even if there are more than one person involved.

My correction was as follows¹:

There's no risk in using falda in singular, even if there is more than one person involved.

But then I started thinking it over and wasn't so sure about my correction anymore, so I looked up several alternatives and found the following patterns:

With Birch in command, there's no risk of compromise, mercy or compassion. [Collins]

There's no risk of Ebola spreading in Europe. [The Local]

Australia: Heath Minister says there is “no risk in vaccinating children” [Before It's News]

RFU says there is 'no risk' in giving head coach Stuart Lancaster a new six-year contract through to 2020. [The Telegraph]

For example, the French Penal Code sets out a duty to rescue where there is no risk to an individual, in Section 63. [Wikipedia]

Europe's regulators have confirmed that there is no risk to consumers from BPA-based food contact materials. [Bisphenol A]

So this is what I gather:

• No risk of X: there's no risk X will happen
• No risk in X: X doesn't entail any risk
• No risk to X: there's no risk X will be damaged

Am I correct? Are there any other prepositions I can use after "there's no risk", or any situations where the expressions above mean something different?

^{1: FWIW, what the OP meant was that it is safe to use falda (skirt) in singular even when the speaker is talking about more than one person wearing a skirt because context generally disambiguates.}