Learn English – When to use do you ever and have you ever

In short, there is very little difference, if any, and I wouldn't worry about it. Only as a noun ( e.g. until forever) should it always be written as forever.

The Oxford English Dictionary says:

Ever:

5b: in phrases, for ever (sometimes, esp. in U.S., written forever, q.v.)

Forever (adverb):

1. The phrase for ever (see ever 5b), written as one word. Chiefly U.S. exc. in sense ‘incessantly’.

2. quasi-n. Eternity, perpetuity.

I think most readers wouldn't even notice whether you used one spelling or the other. But the OED indicates some subtle, potential differences: it is spelled for ever everywhere and in all senses, but the spelling forever for the adverb is more common in America, whereas in England forever is more likely to mean "incessantly", so in a sentence that describes a repeated action. As a noun, it is always forever.

Yes, the OP's question is correct grammatically; it conveys the same sense as the second question.

Has someone ever hit you on the nose?

This sentence is in the active voice. It can be changed into the passive as follows:

Have you ever been hit on the nose by someone?

If you want to be informal in your conversation or writing, you can use 'get' instead of 'be' to form the passive as follows:

Have you ever gotten hit on the nose by someone?