How is the singular noun “vote” used compared to the plural “votes”

grammargrammatical-numbergrammaticalityneologismsnouns

Being a big fan of fivethirtyeight.com, and political nerdishness in general, I have repeatedly run into a plural use of the singular nominal 'vote,' most often in the phrase 'percentage of vote.'

Examples:

I'm wondering if this is a back formation of the adjective, e.g., from 'vote percentage', or if there is a true and grammatically sensical reason for this. It seems like they are treating 'vote' as uncountable (which is amusing, given the authors' professions), and this seems possible in the deeply statistics heavy context in which I often encounter this, all large numbers being reduced to decimal representation in trend lines.

Best Answer

I think this usage is most likely to have developed from the other collective or general senses of "vote", which appear to have existed from the start of the word's use, rather than from a modification of the individualized sense "one person's vote" (the sense found in most plural uses of "votes").

It doesn't seem to be particularly recent in origin: I was able to find this example from 1915:

The Recall of any elected official is made available on petition of 10 percent of vote cast for mayor at the preceding election.

("The Nation-Wide Movement for Municipal Efficiency Under Direct Popular Control", Equity, Volumes 17-18, edited by Charles Fremont Taylor, page 186)

The Oxford English Dictionary (OED) defines the word vote using the word "opinion", and it might be helpful to note that we likewise can speak of one person's opinion, people's opinions, or of common opinion shared by multiple people.

The OED's definition 3a of "vote" is

Collective approval or support in a deliberative decision or election; the choice expressed by a body of electors.

with examples such as

  • 1582 in D. Masson Reg. Privy Council Scotl. (1880) 1st Ser. III. 482 To beare the chargeis of provest, baillies, eldermen, and counsale of the said burgh, not being electit thairto be commoun consent and voit of the haill inhabitantis.

[...]

  • 1821 Ld. Byron Two Foscari v. i, in Sardanapalus 286 Why would the general vote compel me hither?

It's possible that some examples are simply typos or abbreviations of another wording, although it seems difficult to explain away the entirety of your examples in this way. Like some of the commenters beneath your question, I would find it more natural to say "Percentage of the total vote cast by...", which would be expressed in headlinese as "percentage of total vote cast by". The example in Binstock 2000 is not headlinese, but I find it interesting that the rest of the document seems to generally use "of votes" in similar contexts; I almost wonder whether we can rule out "Percentage of total vote" in this source being a typo for "Percentage of total votes".