When you want to express the person who you expected would do something (as in the first example, and possibly the second too), one would normally use of. I would be inclined to say from is unidiomatic in your first sentence, especially because it is expected of you means "you are supposed/obliged to" here; where expected has this strong idiomatic sense of obligation, the agent should definitely have of:
It is expected of you to find the solution.
When it is not the person who you expect will do something, i.e. if the person has a different connection to the verb (like the indirect object below), you should not use of, but the appropriate preposition, as you no doubt know:
Such applause was not expected for our opponent.
If you use of here, it means that you did not expect our opponent to applaud like this. He becomes the agent:
Such applause was not expected of our opponent.
In your second example, the situation is less clear.
Such rude behavior was not expected of you.
The above is possible; it suggests to me that you were not supposed to exhibit such rude behaviour. But from is possible too, with a slightly different meaning:
Such rude behavior was not expected from you.
This means to me that we were surprised to see this behaviour from you. It does not suggest "you were not supposed to" in itself; but the context adds this sense of obligation at any rate (one is always supposed not to exhibit rude behaviour).
Shoe has already answered. Here is some additional information that may or may not clarify things further.
The first important thing to understand is that the relative pronoun is part of the relative clause, not of the main clause. Recently, even some native English speakers seem to be getting confused about this, as some weird new practices around who/whom show.
Let's look at some examples around the main clause "The man is here." I will put the relative clauses in bold face.
- The man who wrote the message is here.
- The man whom I wrote the message is here. [questionable example; see below]
- The man to whom I wrote the message is here.
- The man whom I wrote the message to is here.
We can see that in all examples the relative clause immediately follows the part of speech (here the noun man) which it defines or explains; the remainder of the main clause follows after the end of the relative clause. This is not absolutely necessary, but it's the normal order. (One could also say "The man is here who wrote the message", but that's unusual.)
Next we see that in all examples the relative pronoun (in this case who[m]) begins the relative clause, possibly together with a preposition. This can be explained as one of the few remnants that English has from the original proto-Germanic word order: Word order was generally very free, and the sentence started with the semantically most important part of speech. In a relative clause that's the relative pronoun -- where applicable with its preposition. (It's a general phenomenon in Germanic languages that the word order in subordinate clauses is more conservative than that in declarative main clauses.) As a special feature of English, the preposition can optionally be separated and 'stranded' at the end of the sentence (or here: of the relative clause) as in the last example.
If we replace who/whom by he/him and write all the relative clauses as if they were main clauses, we get declarative main clauses with an unusual (almost obsolete) word order that puts enormous stress on [to] him. The only exception is the first example, where the word order happens to be the normal one because it's the subject that needs stressing.
- He wrote the message.
- Him I wrote the message.
- To him I wrote the message.
- Him I wrote the message to.
Preposition stranding is a normal but optional and somewhat controversial feature of English. (Controversial among native speakers, that is. Non-native speakers get drills in preposition stranding so they can apply it properly.) I can see two problems with it. 1. It defers the information about the precise role of the relative pronoun in the relative clause to the very end of the relative clause. 2. There are transitions between prepositions and case markings. In fact, English to and of, just like French de and à, have developed to a stage where they can be considered as case markers. (Most case markers in European languages were once postpositions and therefore turned into endings. But prefixes marking case aren't unheard-of, either.) Seen this way, preposition stranding (in case of to or of) separates a relative pronoun from its case marker. That's like separating the -m from whom and 'stranding' it at the end of the sentence.
Best Answer
Sentence 1 means that ABC bank are providing the money for the company's third loan payment (the payment is expected from the bank, therefore the bank has the payment and should be putting it somewhere).
Sentence 2 means that ABC bank is expecting to receive the company's third loan payment (presumably ABC bank either hold the loan or are responsible for making sure that the loan payment arrives with the lender in good time).
Sentence 3 means that the company is expected to provide the third loan payment but does not say to whom they are providing it. If additional context makes it clear that ABC are expecting to receive the loan payment then sentences 2 and 3 are near-equivalent, yes.
I'm not sure why you've tagged this "ambiguity" though as none of the sentences are ambiguous.