Learn English – Can an infinitive be used as an indirect object

indirect-objectsinfinitives

Is it possible to use an infinitive as an indirect object?

For example, in the sentence 'I persuaded him to go there,' I guess that 'him' is the direct object and 'to go there' is an indirect object. Is this right?

Best Answer

No. I'm open to the general idea of a sentential complement being an indirect object, though I can't think of any. But the infinitive after "persuade" does not seem to be a reasonable candidate. It's not associated with "to", but rather with "of" ("He didn't believe the earth was round, but we persuaded him of it"). It doesn't express the idea of a recipient. It's not a noun phrase.