Recently, I came across this sentence "Before I'd had a chance to look at the letter, my sister ran up and pulled them out of my hand!" (it's in the book "destination B1 grammar & vocabulary with answer key" unit 5 exercise F)
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The word "Before" mean "my sister ran up" happened before "I'd had a chance"
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But the tense told me the opposite. Because "I'd had a chance" is in past perfect tense, so it must happened before "my sister ran up".
could you explain me why they use tense like that. and can I just use past simple tense in both parts of this sentence?
Best Answer
You are right that the past perfect is generally used to refer to an action that took place before the current point in a narrative about the past. For example:
However, in time clauses with before it is indeed possible to use the past perfect to refer to an action that took place after the current point.
Swan in Practical English Usage (p100) has the sentence:
He continues:
This ngram (before I had a chance, before I'd had a chance) is evidence for Swan's contention that the past perfect tense in the before-clause is unusual. Nevertheless, it is easy to find numerous authentic examples via Google search (and see the Cambridge Grammar of English example below):
As to your second question, you can indeed use the past simple in both clauses. As Parrott in Grammar for English Language Teachers (p389) states in his section on Tense and time conjunctions:
The Cambridge Grammar of English (p60) provides a reason, why the past perfect (as opposed to the simple past) may nevertheless be preferred: