Expropriate has the following definitions (Merriam-Webster):
- to deprive of possession or proprietary rights
- to transfer (the property of another) to one's own possession
For example, in the following sentence:
The Government's motion seeks to expropriate the company's private intellectual property to facilitate an investigation. (emphasis added)
At first I thought the difference between appropriate and expropriate was who the benefit was going to. In other words, you would appropriate property you had possession/ownership of, but if you were to use someone else's property, that would be an expropriation.
But appropriate is defined as (Merriam-Webster):
- to take exclusive possession of
- to set apart for or assign to a particular purpose or use
- to take or make use of without authority or right
That third definition seems to imply you can appropriate both property that belongs to you or property that doesn't belong to you. In the later case, the definition is the same as expropriate.
Can anyone sort out this mess?
Best Answer
Expropriate is generally used to imply removal by a heavy-handed, but legal force, often by government.
Appropriate merely means to take something over as one's own. Illegality is not usually implied, but it does carry a sense of firmly transferring something to oneself or another, or on the part of another person to themselves or another. But note from the examples how it is used to describe the actions of nature.
However misappropriate implies acquisition by illegal means - fraud or theft..
A few examples of the use of each of the three words, from the OED, should help explain.
Expropriate
Appropriate
Misappropriate