Learn English – different grammatical term for “If I was” than for “If I were”

grammarold-englishsubjunctive-moodterminology

Many people would say the correct form is "If I were rich …".

In modern colloquial English though most younger people would say "If I was rich …".

Prescriptivists might say the latter is "the subjunctive mood" and the former is "just plain wrong".

Both forms "were" and "was" are identical to English past tense forms. There are no distinct subjunctive forms I am aware of in Modern English though I do not know if Old English had them.

When learning foreign languages such as Spanish or German we are often told "English doesn't have the subjunctive". Such languages usually do have distinct forms for the subjunctive.

So my question is what terms are used in English linguistics to cover each case? Is it just "subjunctive" or are there also now terms such as "colloquial subjunctive", "informal subjunctive", "formal subjunctive"? Or are there people who insist that English is unlike Spanish and German and name these constructions something distinct from "subjunctive"? Also how do the terms "counterfactual" and "irrealis" fit in?

UPDATE

I didn't find this related question when I was writing mine: Why have the subjunctive and indicative converged in Modern English?

UPDATE 2

After much Googling I've noticed the phrase "marked subjunctive" seems to have some currency but I haven't yet seen it specifically defined to mean the use of "were" rather than "was" so the hunt continues but it's the closest so far.

Best Answer

Purely in terms of the terminology, then a distinction sometimes made is that:

  • inflectional subjunctive is the type found in Old English, German, modern Romance languages etc, in which verbal inflection distinguishes subjunctive from indicative;
  • periphrastic subjunctive is the type found (if you adopt this analysis) in modern English, in which subjunctive is distinguished from indicative by way of modal auxiliaries/other verbal constructions.

There's really no consensually agreed upon "wrong" or "right" answer to the question of whether English actually "has a subjunctive". If you adopt the analysis that "subjunctive" is the grammaticalisation of non-assertive force with a verbal paradigm-- which seems to be a close approximation to what the phenomenon is in Romance languages-- then it's fairly clear that English doesn't have such a phenomenon. (Saying that English has a past subjunctive on the basis of the form "if it were" is a bit like saying that English is a verb-final language on the basis of a phrase such as "Language does not a society make": it's proposing a paradigm on the basis of a rare exception.)

If you extend the definition to cover cases such as English "It is sad that he should leave", "David commanded that she leave" etc, then there are various issues to be considered which are typically glossed over in language learning textbooks:

  • care must be taken to recognise where the similarities and differences actually lie between these phenomena and the inflectional subjunctives of French etc;
  • it is worth thinking about what the motivation is for proposing "subjunctive" as a 'special case' of modal verb usage.
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