Sadly, the most influential book on English Grammar does not accept the unqualified statement Prepositions are followed by a noun phrase or pronoun. It accepts the idea of the subset of 'intransitive prepositions' which are obviously not followed by a noun phrase or pronoun, citing the similarity of structures such as:
He had never been abroad before the war.
He had never been abroad before.
However, many grammarians do maintain that this analysis is imperfect.
If we accept that prepositions need a following noun group, before is readily classed as a preposition in the first sentence here and as an adverb in the second (compare he went abroad later).
However, this isn't a complete explanation either. In
The ship hove to.
The 'to' is obviously not a preposition - but it cannot be dropped from the sentence without leaving an ungrammatical residue. This is different from the above example using an adverb:
He had never been abroad before.
=> He had never been abroad. (OK)
In such cases, an analysis I subscribe to is that the 'heave to' construction cannot be separated into different parts - it's a multi-word lexeme (cf 'ship of the desert' for camel). If the 'to' in such a structure needs an individual name, the one it usually ends up with is 'particle', or, to show its affiliations, 'adverbial particle'.
I'd argue that 'bring to' and 'fall to' in Shoe's examples are multi-word lexemes.
A drop of whiskey brought him to. *A drop of whiskey brought him.
Fall to! DM:Fall!
Examples of to as a true adverb don't seem very common - but he may have found one in 'She pushed the door to.' But perhaps this is better analysed yet another way, as a directional / locative particle: 'I think she pushed the bolt to/home. Is it home?'
Apparently, a nautical expression uses 'to' as meaning 'into the wind', so this is (arguably! - how cohesive are turn and to here?) an adverbial usage:
We turned to and flew as much canvas as we could manage... (Google)
Best Answer
That example sentence is poorly written so I'm going to ignore it and just describe how to use for to explain a reason.
Both of those sentences are correct and mean the same thing. The only real difference is that using for like this is a bit literary and uncommon in everyday speech.
This sentence is correct:
This sentence is NOT correct:
Why are the correct examples correct and why is the incorrect example incorrect?
Because introduces a subordinate clause that explains a reason.
For also introduces a subordinate clause the explains a reason.
Because of, on the other hand, is followed by a noun (and its accompanying modifiers). Because of does not introduce a subordinate clause.
Let's try to take a look at the example sentence you gave...
I believe this usage of for is used similarly to how it's used in the below examples:
In other words, it is specifying one half of a deal. When we compare that to:
I would say that the former carries a nuance that a better academic environment is his earned right. The second sentence is a little bit weaker in that giving him a better academic environment could be seen more as a favor or largesse, not something that he has earned a right to. In the end though, there is not very much difference between these two expressions.