I am answering an online English grammar test and encountered the following question
Where was Jack yesterday? —I don't know. He ________ seeing the doctor.
My answer is: might has been
Correct Answer is: might have been
Why not might has been? He is singular?
Best Answer
Because the verb is "might". After the first verb you use the infinitive, for example:
The same rule applies when using "have" to indicate past tense. I will bold the conjugated verbs in the following examples. The following verbs are in infinitive forms.