In causative constructions, for example:
I'll have him do it for me.
I'll get him to do it for me.
What is the difference in meaning between them? Obviously, there's a difference in register, with "have" being more formal than get, but I think there's a shade of difference in the actual meaning too. I'm just finding it hard to pin down.
I have some vague ideas, but I think it would be more productive to leave the conversation open rather than prime it with my own thoughts and end up narrowing the topic.
Feel free to use any example sentences comparing the two verbs, not necessarily the above.
Best Answer
There is a degree of force implied in causative verbs. I used to teach them as make, get, have, let, and help in descending degree of persuasion although other grammars teach them as verb patterns and include other verbs. Some only include make, get, and have. In other words, if I “make SB do STH”, I put a gun to their head. “Have SB do STH” and I probably paid them. “Get SB to do STH” usually means I used some polite persuasion.