Am I right that https://english.stackexchange.com/a/96966/50720 is claiming thus (as regards the title of this question)? If so, how do you derive or explain this equality of clauses?
I'm also reminded of Edmund Blackadder being irritated by an old witch's turn of phrase, and reprimanding her:
"It's Yes it is not That it be!"
http://www.bbc.co.uk/programmes/b006xxw3For anyone who doesn't know, this is a BBC comedy programme and the
line is obviously done for comic effect, but it stems from the fact
that 'it be' was commonly used at one time, and might still be used in
certain English dialects.It's clear that that many kinds of 'incorrect' or non-standard usage
have been around for a long time and I don't think it's up to us (we)
in the 21st century to tell them they were wrong. The point of
language is communication. As long as there's no chance of confusion
when using Not I/Not me, it's a matter for personal choice. Let it be!
Blackadder: Tell me old crone, is this Putney?
Old woman: That it be. That it be.
Blackadder: "Yes it is", not "That it be". You don't have to talk in that stupid voice to me, I'm not a tourist.
Best Answer
It is an old and dialectal form. Is it raining? That (i.e raining), it be. This means, in modern Received English Yes, it is.
In the Norfolk dialect today that nearly always replaces it, where it would otherwise be the subject of the sentence or clause.
How far is it to London? That's over 100 miles.
Extract from Wikipedia entry re Norfolk dialect.