Learn English – “I have no story to be told” or “I have no story to tell”

grammaticalityinfinitivesword-choice

The former one is what I heard in Adele's song Rolling in the Deep, is this a common usage?
Or is it just for rhyme?

update: to make my question more specific:

  1. Is the former one grammatically correct? I am only taught the latter form in school.
  2. If correct, is there any difference, maybe slightly, between them?

The rhyme thing is just my guess.

Best Answer

I have no formal evidence to be used

But I don't think the phrasing is meant to be abused

When writing lyrics, some of the time

Writers rearrange the words, just to make a rhyme

In other words, I ascribe to your rhyming theory...

Edit: Since the former is more uncommon, I presume that the phrasology was at least partly motivated by the rhyme.

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