I know that "tense" indicates time. If that is true, then not every sentence can be indicated of its tense.
Please review these sentences:
"If I could go to the market , I must have taken breakfast (by now)."
"If this great mountain was given my secret, it would have broken."
"If she were tall like you, she would never have asked you to pick those clothes for her."
Here all these sentences have main clauses in past, but I don't know whether past indefinite or not.
Still, these are imaginary conditions, supported by “if”; so can we say that these sentences have no tense?
Some people told me that their roots are in the present as we are indicating the absence of the mentioned conditions implies that the sentence indicates the present continuous, or some other sort of present.
But that sounds strange, as the sentence itself does not narrate the absence of that condition but only the supposition of “if” that were true… so what is the tense.
Thnx for all responses. Now i can safely say that this sentence is making use of auxiliary modals in subjunctive mood. Still according to my perspective, it indicates towards a timeless phenomenon( Though no one knows about the future) still its pointing towards a timeless phenomenon, still if someone wants to refer it to a tense, i think its is present indefinite because it indicates that i am not a bird. "If I were" suggests that I am not.Otherwise the sentence itself does not refer to time. And as i have understood English language does not make use of tense only to indicate time, the total sentence structure depends on many thing sand also the mood of sentence changes the total outlook of any sentence. So tense and/ or mood can be understood if they indicate real things rather imaginary ones.
I failed to understand any better through these answers.
Best Answer
To answer the official question, in every sentence (not every clause, but every sentence) the first verb in the main verb phrase must be one of
Verb+-Z₃, the 3SgPr inflection)Verb+-ED, the Past inflection)English modal auxiliaries are not inflected for tense, so they are either not in any tense or they are always present tense, depending on what kind of theory of tense you're applying. So either all English sentences are in a tense, or there are some that aren't. But that's just how one describes the language -- it doesn't affect the grammar.
Time in English is frequently indicated by tense, but often enough it's also -- or even only -- a matter of the words or constructions used. See the Deixis Lectures for more on expressions of Time.
English tensed verb forms, however, often specifically don't refer to time. For instance, the Present tense, when used with an active verb, is most likely to refer to an habitual occurrence than to the present time. E.g,
None of these refer to what Bill, the dog, or Mary are doing at the present time -- neither the time of speaking nor the "present" of a narrative. This is called a generic construction.
The particular use in the original question licenses the use of a past verb form to indicate an unreal supposition, much the way certain regular subjunctive verb endings do in European languages; but only sporadically -- not regularly. This counterfactual conditional construction, like most archaic remnants, is idiomatic, and governed by only a few constructions and verbs. So one finds