Learn English – is it correct to use ‘often a times’

Hyperbaton correct is indeed—from the Germanic side of the ancestry of English, a holdover must I'd wager it be—though usually archaic it is considered, and thus poetically and dialectically it is used. To see it with objects quite unusual it is, as in:

One swallow does not a summer make.

Rather more common it becomes when prepositions more involved do themselves become.

Some rise by sin, and some by virtue fall.

—Escalus in Shakespeare's Measure for Measure, Act II, Scene 1

And poetry let us not forget:

I will arise and go now,
And go to Innisfree,
And a small cabin build there,
Of clay and wattles made;
Nine bean rows will I have there,
A hive for the honey bee,
And live alone in the bee-loud glade

—W. B. Yeats, The Lake Isle of Innisfree

Inversion of noun and adjective is a form of hyperbaton most common: it describes with force a thirst unquenchable, a hunger insatiable, a passion so wild it moans “word order be damned!”; to bolder wax (and more archaic seem), consider the object to move afore the verb, and thy speech merrily to lilt and gaily prance allow.

I find it comprehensible. I would not write it, but I could imagine myself saying it. I consider it an elliptical reduction like so:

Neither [did] I [see] you.

In one of the other answers we have:

Nor did I see you.

I probably wouldn't use that construction very frequently, but I don't think it is wrong.

Probably the clearest way to say what you want would be to write the sentence as follows:

I didn't see you either

Thus, you avoid some difficulties incumbent in the use of neither and nor (which are perhaps differences between BrE and AmE?)