None of them are grammatical full sentences, if we don't consider "why so" as having a meaning of its own. And we'll do that in a minute, but let's first pretend that it doesn't have one.
Possible full sentences would be:
Why are you so sure?
How are you so sure?
Why is it that you are so sure?
How is it that you are so sure?
The forms you all have are eliding part of these sentences.
Now, those that do not contain so could be construed as elisions from different questions; asking why someone is sure of something is different to to asking why they are sure to the extent that they are. Of course, we could be asking that, but that's not the form that has become idiomatic, as we'll come to.
The way elision works with contexts is complicated, in that we can understand e.g. some headlines fine that we'd trip up on in the middle of a passage of prose.
And similarly, while "how so sure?" doesn't scan right, we still understand it, and it would unusual, but not utterly bizarre, for someone to use it in informal speech.
Likewise with "why so sure?" except that "why so" has been used so much as to become an idiom of its own, indeed one that is defined in its own right in at least one dictionary.
And so, after that little journey through elision, we can see that because "why so" has been so often used as to become an idiom, we can actually understand "why so sure" without reference to elision at all, but in terms of that idiomatic meaning.
("Why so" was once also used as an expression of relief or acquiescence, as it is used by Shakespeare and continued to be used into the 19th Century, this other meaning might or might not have helped "why so" in the sense here come into being).
"How so" has had a different journey toward becoming an idiom, in that it is often found as the entirety of a question ("How so?"). As such, just as we can understand "why so X?" as an idiomatic form with a defined meaning, so we can "how so?", but not "why so?" or "how so X?" because that is not what those idioms mean.
Best Answer
It's wrong because has happened, as the perfect tense, indicates an action that is momentary, or at least completed; whereas for a while now indicates something continuing and requires the imperfect tense. So It happened a while ago or It has been happening for a while now, but not ?It has happened for a while now.
(Many native speakers would not even notice the error, but that's no reason to accept it, any more than the fact that many people wouldn't notice if they were short-changed in a shop is a reason to accept it when it happens to you.)