In looking at the answers for this question, Using "quite" with a noun, it occurred to me that "quite," although having a dictionary definition, might be used differently by AmE and BrE speakers such that it is not correct to speak about "the correct" use of "quite."
Case in point, WS2's example sentence:
There were quite a few hundred at the gathering
to my ear (AmE) sounds "wrong," but in the UK this might be everyday usage.
Also the following:
There were quite 50 people at the house
is something I would express using about / actually / around instead of quite.
- Is there a significant usage difference between BrE and AmE usage of "quite?"
This could be viewed as "opinion based" but perhaps there is an objective answer.
Best Answer
Mari-Lou A asked Dan if he could provide dated evidence of a usage of 'quite' in the form: _'..quite 50 people.' Here are a couple.
From 'The Missionary Herald at Home and Abroad Vol 51 from 1855:
http://preview.tinyurl.com/ojz24nf
And James Fennimore Cooper's 'Wynadotte' from 1800:
http://preview.tinyurl.com/or7wonw
My own little theory is that 'quite' is derived from 'quit' (which the OED happily asserts without further comment), and that 'quit' in its original Latin sense was a balancing or restoring of order to accounts or arrangements, either by keeping them in balance, or in closing them. Hence in former times to say 'quit' was to refer to some ledger or accounting system. 'Not quit fifty' simply means it hasn't added up to fifty, while 'quit fifty' meant that it had added up to fifty. Since the latter assertion usually didn't need confirmation or reinforcement the use of 'quit' or 'quite' wasn't called for, but if one was addressing a doubting audience one would say, 'Yes, quit fifty acres!', meaning 'Yes, and I've checked!'.