I am not a native English speaker. Somebody used this sentence when talking about me.
Unless his parents are filthy rich everybody needs some form of income.
While most dictionaries define it as "extremely rich", some define it as "very rich, possibly having become so by unfair means".
The answer at Origin of the phrase "filthy rich"? also didn't tell a clear distinction between both meanings. So, in context of the given sentence, should I consider it to have a negative connotation or not?
The full context is this discussion in the comments on a sister site. See the fourth comment.
Best Answer
I would not take offense at that statement. The actual comment in question was:
First of all, the author of the comment is not really talking about you and is not suggesting anything about your parents. The subject here is everyone, not you. The comment simply states that everyone needs income unless they are being supported by rich parents. It is not in any way suggesting that you do or do not need income or have such parents.
That said, and contrary to @EdwinAshworth's answer, filthy rich carries no negative connotations for me other than the concept of being extremely wealthy. This may itself be considered offensive by people but as far as I am concerned, filthy rich does not imply any kind of dishonesty. At least, no more so than extremely rich or similar phrases. This is supported by the definitions listed here and here.
So, the only negative connotation of filthy rich is that one is too rich. So much so that it is considered excessive. For example, somebody who owns 3 houses and 5 cars may be considered rich. One who owns 15 houses and 100 cars would be considered filthy rich.
However, Edwin tends to know what he's talking about and you also seem to have found a definition suggesting that the term has negative connotations so I guess it must have in certain dialects or contexts. I certainly do not read it as being intended to be offensive in the comment you are asking about however.