Both are in the present perfect, but one uses the verb 'to go' and the other 'to be'. Is there a rule for this?
Is there any chance that the differences between "I have been" vs. "I have gone", are differences in English dialect (I don't know if this is the right word).
Could I say that North American English speakers use "I have gone", and maybe U.K speakers say "I've been"? Or vice versa.