Learn English – The words “objective” and “subjective”

etymologymeaning

We say subjective to indicate that something is based on feelings and opinions, and objective to indicate the opposite.

Why are these the same words as objective and subjective referring, in grammar, to nouns and pronouns in a sentence? Is this a coincidence?

I'm looking around for the roots of the words… they seem like they've gone through a lot since medieval Latin—their current meanings in English are only vaguely related to their meanings in Latin:

from medieval Latin objectum ‘thing presented to the mind,’ neuter past participle (used as a noun) of Latin obicere, from ob- ‘in the way of’ + jacere ‘to throw’

and

from Latin subjectus ‘brought under,’ past participle of subicere, from sub- ‘under’ + jacere ‘throw.’

–NOAD

I cannot find an association between their two sets of meanings, either logically or in their etymology. Perhaps I'm missing something obvious here? I sure hope not, because in that case I would look silly.

Best Answer

We say subjective to indicate that something is based on feelings and opinions, and objective to indicate the opposite.

Why are these the same words as objective and subjective referring, in grammar, to nouns and pronouns in a sentence? Is this a coincidence?

I'm looking around for the roots of the words…

The answer is not in the roots, but in philosophy and its historical development

'subjectum' does not mean 'brought under' (sort of: 'subjugated'). '-um' is neuter and means 'what...', 'jacere' means '[to] lie/lay', therefore: 'what lies underneath, what is hidden'

'subject'comes from latin 'subiectum': in ancient philosophy it was a translation of the greek 'ὑποκείμενον' (= what is under), which was used by Aristotle to indicate both the 'substance' and the 'matter' on which the 'form' is impressed. This Aristotelian distinction and terminology had currency for many centuries, down to Descartes, then Latin was superseded as a universal language. It corresponds roughly to Kant's concept of 'noumenon' 'the thing in itself/ per se': the intrinsic substantial reality as opposed to the 'object': what appears to the senses, its representation in the mind.

But Kant reversed the terms and considered 'the thing in itself' as the object and now the subject is the human mind that categorizes the 'noumena': the subject perceives and describes the object:

Kant's "categories of understanding" are descriptions of the sum of human reasoning that can be brought to bear in attempting to understand the world in which we exist (that is, to understand, or attempt to understand, "things in themselves").

This is still one of the current meanings of 'subject' in spite of its etymology.

subject: the mind, ego, or agent of whatever sort that sustains or assumes the form of thought or consciousness That is the historical reason why what

The terms of grammar are based on this distinction. Linguistics followed philosophy.

'subjective' refers then both to 'the subject' of a verb/sentence and to a 'personal' interpretation of reality

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