In my academics I learned that we use infinitives (to + verb 1st form). So I was surprised when someone told me this sentence is incorrect. I am not able to figure it out why this sentence is incorrect.
When the shootout took place the police made everyone to leave the
building immediately.
According to him, to won’t appear in this sentence. But according to my understanding, infinitives always contain to. Please clarify my doubt.
Best Answer
EDIT: Added modals including quasi-modals; added examples and exceptions; note that these lists are only “complete” for the modals and quasi-modals.
That’s because make does not take a to-infinitive. It takes a bare infinitive, without the to particle. Not all infinitives have a to attached to them. You really have to learn the sort of complement each particular verb takes.
However, as a sort of general rule, the causative verbs don’t take a to particle, and neither do the sensory verbs. First the causatives:
And now the sensory verbs (sometimes called perception verbs), which also all take a bare infinitive alone:
The nine modal verbs also take a bare infinitive. Note that the modals do not inflect for person, nor do they admit a person complement after the verb and before the infinitive the way those listed above do. There are exactly nine main modal verbs in English:
Less common than the nine main modals that everyone knows, there are also four more which are sometimes classed as quasi-modals, verbs which exist in both modal and non-modal form, with the modal version listed first and the non-modal version given in parentheses:
Contrast those sets above that take no to with “normal” verbs taking a to particle before their infinitive complement, like these:
Then you have the privative verbs (ones that take something away), which all take an -ing form instead of an infinitive as their complement, and which furthermore require from not to:
A very great deal of professional linguistic work has been done on these related matters, with many PhDs granted.