Learn English – What’s difference between “I am usually doing something” and “I usually do something”

It's generally regarded that the two are grammatically acceptable pronouns in American English. However, "one" is also considered to be more formal than you and excessive use of the word can lead one to appear as overly haughty or pretentious. One can use the pronoun "one" as an impersonal pronoun that's representative of the average person - this generalization can lead to a sense of social superiority.

One of them isn't really more correct than the other - however, "one" can sound rather pedantic when used in relaxed or informal settings. This is realized in the object case when "one" sounds quite odd - "When lemons are handed to one, one should make lemonade."

Sources: Grammar Girl and Capital Community College Foundation

To have somebody do something most commonly means to cause somebody to do something (eg, ask, force, pay). But in this sentence the verb had means something like believed, perceived, recorded, claimed, or stated.

The clerk said the robber was tall and blond, but another witness had the robber as being of average height with red hair.

The history that the victors created claimed that the capitalists were the winners. More simply: The victors claimed that the capitalists were the winners. The rhetorical style suggests that the writer may be expressing disagreement with or doubt about that claim.

There are many reasons for chosing an -ing form over another type of word, sometimes more than one reason in a particular instance. Here, the primary purpose was to avoid the phrase to have somebody win, which suggests that have means cause. We would need more context to figure out if the -ing form is also related to a time aspect. I would guess not, as it probably functions here as a verbal noun instead of a present participle.