I think in the following sentence:
Adam's answer was similar to that of clergy.
"That of clergy" can be replaced by "clergy's" or "clergy's answer":
Adam's answer was similar to clergy's.
So, if my understanding is correct, can we say the following two sentences are grammatically equivalent too?
This is my book.
This book is of me.
Since in the first sentence, "of clergy" was indicating possession, I expect "of me" to mean "mine" and indicate another form of possession too.
Best Answer
That of is unnecessary when the comparison is to a single noun and you can use an apostrophe:
You can probably also get away with it for a two-word noun phrase:
But you need it for longer noun phrases. So, we don't usually say:
but:
The following sentence is problematic:
because it is not the case that problem and the majority of people in the western world are similar entities.
Addendum:
That is a pronoun whose referent in this case is problem. Of course, if the referent is a plural noun, then that changes to those: