Learn English – Where did the term “OK/Okay” come from
etymology
I've heard lots of varying histories of the term "OK".
Is there any evidence of the true origin of the term?
Best Answer
According to the OED, the term OK began its days as a humorous initialism “apparently derived from the initial letters of oll (or orl) korrect, jocular alteration of ‘all correct’ ”, when it was first seen almost 200 years ago in the United States, way back in 1839.
It seems that this sort of off-kilter formation was considered quite funny at the time: “an instance of a contemporary vogue for humorous abbreviations of this type” per the OED.
By 1840, this use was “greatly reinforced by association” with another identical initialism O.K., this one derived from the nickname Old Kinderhook adopted by Martin Van Buren during his 1835 electoral campaign for the U.S. presidency. The corresponding verb was soon null-derived¹ from this initialism around 1882.
The OED further notes (with bold emphasis added in this post for clarity) that:
Other suggestions, e.g. that O.K. represents an alleged Choctaw word oke ‘it is’ (actually the affirmative verbal suffix -okii ‘indeed, contrary to your supposition’), or French au quai, or Scottish English och aye, or that it derives from a word in the West African language Wolof via slaves in the southern States of America, all lack any form of acceptable documentation.
The OED further states that “Competing theories as to the origin of the expression have been in evidence almost since its first appearance”, and then provides several early completing theories in support of that assertion.
Footnotes
Null derivation, also known as zero derivation, is when a word is conscripted unchanged into use for a part of speech that’s different from the customary one. It has no derivational affix and so is said to be null derived, such as when we null-derive nouns from adjectives in The Good, the Bad, and The Ugly. A clearer example of this is the classic refrain that “verbing weirds language”, which features two instances of null-derivation: not only does it null-derive a new verb “verb” from its noun and then uses its verbal -ing inflection as a subject, it also null0derives a new verb “weird” from its adjectives and then uses the new verb’s third-person singular inflection.
You seem to be asking about the origin of the term as used in category theory. The history of the term there is somewhat unclear, but it can at least be traced back a little ways:
The frequent but unfortunate use of the word "triple" in this sense has achieved a maximum of needless confusion, what with the conflict with ordered triple, plus the use of associated terms such as "triple derived functors" for functors which are not three times derived from anything in the world. Hence the term monad.
The name "operad" is a word that I coined myself, spending a week thinking about nothing else. Besides having a nice ring to it, the name is meant to bring to mind both operations and monads. Incidentally, I persuaded MacLane to discard the term "triple" in favor of "monad" in his book "Categories for the working mathematician", which was being written about the same time. I was convinced that the notion of an operad was an important one, and I wanted the names to mesh.
Meanwhile Jean Bénabou had invented weak 2-categories, calling them bicategories. (...) He pointed out that a lax functor from the terminal category 1 to Cat was a category A equipped with a "standard construction" or "triple" (that is, a monoid in the monoidal category [A, A] of endofunctors of A where the tensor product is composition); he introduced the term monad for this concept.
The motivation for the term is to suggest a relationship with monoids, as can be deduced from the construction given in the quote above, and the Greek root "monos" comes second-hand. The connection to philosophy in general, or Leibniz in particular, is often asserted but never to my knowledge supported in any way. More likely if anything would be a connection to the term "monad" used in non-standard analysis, also related to Leibniz, but I'm not sure what the conceptual link there would be. An anecdote from Michael Barr relates the first use of the term:
(...) The attendance consisted of practically everyone in the world who had any interest in categories, with the notable exception of Charles Ehresmann. (...) One day at lunch or dinner I happened to be sitting next to Jean Benabou and he turned to me and said something like "How about 'monad'?" I thought about and said it sounded pretty good to me. (Yes, I did.) So Jean proposed it to the general audience and there was general agreement.
The off-the-cuff nature of the suggestion, and immediate positive response from a large audience, suggests that there's probably no written record of the term being introduced formally. It's certainly possible that the word was borrowed from use in philosophy or elsewhere, but in any case there appears to be no connection more meaningful than the level of "cheap pun".
As far as I know, the only way you're going to get a better answer than that is by asking Bénabou himself.
Although there are already 2 correct answers, I'd like to add a few points.
But first I'd like to recommend the very informative and very accessible booklet "The Early Alphabet - available on Google book" at least partially - of which I drew the following bullet points.
The letter alpha originally represented a cow head. If you imagine a capital A upside down, you'll see that it's pretty close. It's Phoenician name was alf which meant "Ox". Hence the Greek "alpha".
The letter beta was originally a house (actually the bird's eye view of a square house). In most Semitic languages the word for house is pronounced "Beth, Bayt...". Hence the Greek "beta".
Gamma is a camel,
Delta a door,
Epsilon a window etc...
The order of the letters (all consonants and actually shorthand for syllabaries) was actually fixed very early. One of the earliest of these abecedaries is actually still written in cuneiforms (a syllabic writing system) and is more than 3200 years old.
Best Answer
According to the OED, the term OK began its days as a humorous initialism “apparently derived from the initial letters of oll (or orl) korrect, jocular alteration of ‘all correct’ ”, when it was first seen almost 200 years ago in the United States, way back in 1839.
It seems that this sort of off-kilter formation was considered quite funny at the time: “an instance of a contemporary vogue for humorous abbreviations of this type” per the OED.
By 1840, this use was “greatly reinforced by association” with another identical initialism O.K., this one derived from the nickname Old Kinderhook adopted by Martin Van Buren during his 1835 electoral campaign for the U.S. presidency. The corresponding verb was soon null-derived¹ from this initialism around 1882.
The OED further notes (with bold emphasis added in this post for clarity) that:
The OED further states that “Competing theories as to the origin of the expression have been in evidence almost since its first appearance”, and then provides several early completing theories in support of that assertion.
Footnotes