unfortunately I wasn't been able to find an answer to this question, so I'm just gonna ask here.
When levies (or taxes) which I get from a vassal are calculated, I only get a percentage depending on the government type. So if I have a Feudal vassal, this means I can get 25% levies – if that vassal has 100 levies, I can raise 25 levies from him.
But how is that number determined if that vassal has levies from his own vassal?
Simple example would be:
Duke X has 100 levies.
His liege Count Y gets 25%, so he has 25 levies.
The King Z (liege of Count Y) gets 25% from his Vassal Count Y.
Since Duke X is not a direct vassal to him, he only gets levies from Count Y – but that would mean that the king gets ~8 levies.
So how is this calculated exactly?
Also if Count Y has 25 levies, are the ones he has to give to his king (~8) also considered when calculating his number of levies? (Since he effectively can only get ~16 levies)?
Best Answer
Taxes and Levies from a vassal's vassals are already factored in.
If your vassal has 100 levies, you'll get 25% of it -- it doesn't matter if those 100 come from a half-dozen different mayors and cities.
Source is irrelevant, the numeric value (and resultant percent) is all that matters. Put another way, the calculation is only done on your direct vassals, and because Levies don't represent individuals, it's consistent to abstract them in this way.