Beside is the more popular usage, but I have seen many references and usages of besides, as well. Beside is a preposition, and besides can be either a preposition or an adverb.
Which would be the correct usage?
expressionsphrases
Beside is the more popular usage, but I have seen many references and usages of besides, as well. Beside is a preposition, and besides can be either a preposition or an adverb.
Which would be the correct usage?
According to Wikipedia, both English versions derive from a Scottish expression "possession is eleven points in the law, and they say there are but twelve". Wikipedia itself doesn't have a source or etymology for that expression, but I found it in a play by Colley Cibber, "Woman's Wit", from the late 1600s, so it's at least that old.
The term's basic meaning is simply that the overwhelming majority of statutes in the law are based on, or define and regulate, possession of things of value, such as goods, services rendered, money and land. So, at its core it's simply a statement of a known truth.
However, the term as commonly used is a synonym for "finder's keepers", thus referring to a key point involving possession. The fact that a person is in possession of some item of value is usually prima facie that that person is the legal owner of said item, and absent any evidence of a superior claim to the item, or that the person in possession acquired it illegally, that decision will stand. In terms of things which are not legal to possess, the possession is prima facie that the owner is guilty of the crime, and will be found so if there is no compelling evidence to refute it.
The term is also often used to describe "adverse possession of real property". Simply stated, a person who finds apparently abandoned or unimproved land, improves said property and occupies it for a time without hindrance, is considered the "adverse owner" of that property and is entitled to it, despite there possibly being an "actual owner" who holds a title to the land. Adverse possession is also the legal concept behind liens; a person who has improved some property knowingly belonging to another has a claim on a portion of the property equal to the value of improvements rendered, until settled by some other means. There are similar statutes for material goods; if you find money or something else of value, and nobody else offers a valid claim to it given reasonable opportunity, it's yours.
We find it in the Wycliffe bible. I quote here from the 1395:
and weren lastynge stabli in the teching of the apostlis, and in comynyng of the breking of breed, in preieris (Acts 2:42 Wycliffe)
And ech dai thei dwelliden stabli with o wille in the temple, and braken breed aboute housis, and token mete with ful out ioye and symplenesse of herte, (Acts 2:46 Wycliffe)
And in the first dai of the woke, whanne we camen to breke breed, Poul disputide with hem, and schulde go forth in the morew; (Acts 20:7 Wycliffe)
Wycliffe worked from the Latin Vulgate, in which we find fractio panis.
However, the earlier Greek has the expression too:
ἦσαν δὲ προσκαρτεροῦντες τῇ διδαχῇ τῶν ἀποστόλων καὶ τῇ κοινωνίᾳ καὶ τῇ κλάσει τοῦ ἄρτου καὶ ταῖς προσευχαῖς (ΠΡΑΞΕΙΣ 2:42)
καθ' ἡμέραν τε προσκαρτεροῦντες ὁμοθυμαδὸν ἐν τῷ ἱερῷ κλῶντές τε κατ' οἶκον ἄρτον μετελάμβανον τροφῆς ἐν ἀγαλλιάσει καὶ ἀφελότητι καρδίας (ΠΡΑΞΕΙΣ 2:46)
Ἐν δὲ τῇ μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων συνηγμένων τῶν μαθητῶν τοῦ κλάσαι ἄρτον ὁ Παῦλος διελέγετο αὐτοῖς μέλλων ἐξιέναι τῇ ἐπαύριον παρέτεινέν τε τὸν λόγον μέχρι μεσονυκτίου (ΠΡΑΞΕΙΣ 20:7).
[I could well be mis-highlighting the second example.]
While the practice of breaking rather than cutting bread, even when knives are available, is seemingly an old one, the expression is not heavily used in pagan sources, and is in Christian sources.
Edit: Could there be an earlier source?
Well, social sharing of food is probably as old as society; mammals generally feed their young, and chimpanzees share food they have collectively hunted, so we can imagine that there was some social value to food sharing among humans from whatever time you want to start calling them human.
For similar reasons, socio-religious sharing is probably as old as religion. It's found in ancient religion ("reversion of offerings" in Ancient Egyptian religion for example), and through to the very recent (of the top of my head, Judaism, Islam, Voodoo, Wicca, Hinduism all have some form of food sharing I can think of, even Jains end Paryushan with a communal meal, and they see starving to death as the ideal way for a monk to die).
Religious associations for bread, are likewise about as old as bread. The oldest cuneiform writings include Sumerian poems which are at once myths about the invention of bread, and bread recipes: Read the myth, and you're reading the recipe. (I haven't tried these, though I have tried one of the contemporaneous beer recipes, though alas without success).
And tearing rather than cutting bread is common everywhere from ancient times to today, and from peasants to haute cuisine.
So just about anywhere and any time, can we find what is needed for "break bread" to become a turn of phrase.
It does seem though that it doesn't exist earlier in this way. While some components are pretty universal as I suggest, and some tied into specific earlier views (e.g. combining the Last Supper and beliefs of the Second Coming, Isaiah 25:6-9 was now seen by the Christians as a prophesy of a new view on the Messianic feast), it seems the particular combination of these common themes gives us the expression.
Lack of evidence is not evidence of lack though. It also doesn't help that there are biases on such matters. Many Christian sources are biased toward claiming phrasings and customs they practice to be innovations of the early Christians. People inclined to revise Christian history (quite prominently many atheists, modern pagans and Christians of denominations that don't share a particular feature) are often biased toward claiming they aren't. In practice, each are as likely to muddy waters as the other. But while I've certainly seen Neopagans pointing to the provenance of bread-based traditions to argue "breaking of bread" isn't specifically Christian (and I'd quite agree for the reasons given above, though I disagree with the assumption that modern pagan forms are entirely uninfluenced by Christian Eucharist and perhaps even by Seder), I've seen nothing to suggest that the turn of phrase is; not even some spurious cases, and I've seen a lot of spurious claims about the provenance of all manner of things from pagans.
So, breaking bread is no more exclusively Christian than breathing air is, but the expression to break bread probably does originate with the early Christians.
Best Answer
I agree entirely with Sven Yargs except that I think, 'beside the point' means to be 'off the point' rather than next to it.
Example: At the Olympics, the winners stand on the podium. If you stand beside the podium then you are off it.
Answer
I say that 'beside the point' is correct for the reasons given by Sven Yargs. In particular, quote - Technically, besides the point means "in addition to or aside from the point," while idiomatically beside the point means "irrelevant."
The following ngram backs up this choice. I notice that the alternative version appears to be there as well, however on reading the associated quotes, I see that is used in a different sense.
Google ngram: beside the point,besides the point