From Garner's Modern American Usage 3rd Ed. :
No other . . . than. This phrase often gets mangled into no other . . . except, which is a piece of illogic. The correction is typically no . . . other than—e.g.:
“The Bruce Willis supernatural thriller has grossed $20 million for the fifth consecutive weekend, accomplishing what no other film has done except ‘Titanic’ [read what no film other than ‘Titanic’ has done or no film has done except ‘Titanic’].”
Is it really illogical? No other film has done except ‘Titanic’ vs no film has done except ‘Titanic’. The illogicality of the former eludes me, it seems to me that no film is no other (than BW's thriller) film. Where am I wrong?
Best Answer
What was Garner thinking?
With regard to the sentence
Garner takes the position that either "no film other than" or "no film except" suffices to identify the unnamed film in question (Die Hard With a Large Bank Account, or whatever it may be) as a second exception to the rule applying to all films besides the reference film (in this case, Titanic).
If we accept the premise that "no X other than" and "no X except" are the two standard stools that English invites us to perch our negative exception language on, it would seem that "no other X except" falls between those two stools—neither completing the first properly nor landing on the second with proper succinctness.
Later in the same entry for "No other ... than," Garner identifies an instance in which, in his view, "no other... except" is logically correct:
So it seems clear that Garner objects to "no other X except" on grounds that, on the one hand, it overdefines an instance in which "no X other than" or "no X except" would suffice to indicate that one thing alone is an exception to the blanket "no," and, on the other hand, it misuses a formulation that has a definite and correct meaning in certain rare cases (such as the "Vojtas" quotation that he discusses near the end of his coverage of the wording).
However, Garner's treatment doesn't squarely address the question of whether "no other X except" deserves to be treated as a third legitimate stool, coequal with "no X other than" and "no X except," on the strength of its frequent (and longtime) idiomatic use in English.
Early grammatical discussions of 'no other X except'
Observers have long been aware of the logical complexity of accurately expressing negative ideas in phrases that include the word other, such as no other than, "no other but," "no other besides," and no other except One interesting early discussion occurs a brief chapter titled "No Other Besides. No Other Except. No Other But." in Robert Baker, Remarks on the English Language], second edition (1779 [the first edition came out in 1770):
This last concession is really quite extraordinary: "no other X except is illogical when applied to a single exception, but when used poetically it can supply needed force and therefore may be allowed.
In any case, half a century later, Alexander Crombie, Etymology and Syntax of the English Language (1830) raises the same issue and seems not entirely persuaded by Baker's reasoning:
Conclusion
That Garner—whom I take to be a practical and fair-minded modern usage authority—adopts the 1779 Baker line with regard to the illogic of "no other X except" surprises and intrigues me. He seems to be reacting to two things: the fact that the simpler, uncontroversial wordings "no other X than" and "no X except" remain at least as common as "no other X except," and the possibility that illogical use of "no other X except" may undercut logical (and therefore proper) use of the phrase.
But Garner would, I think, readily concede that illogic by itself is no absolute bar to common (and indeed standard) usage in English. English speakers have been using the expressions "no other X except," "no other X but," "no other X besides," etc., in the now-disapproved sense for a very long time—certainly long before the language more-or-less standardized on "no other X than," according to Alexander Crombie, writing in 1830.
Under the circumstances, it's hard to view Garner's argument from logic against "no other X except" as being much more than the perpetuation of an ancient academic solution to an old riddle. As Crombie wrote 187 years ago, "The distinction, which he wishes to establish, is sufficiently evident; but that it is warranted by strict analysis, I do not mean to affirm."