Learn English – “To run” vs. “for running of”

gerund-vs-infinitivegrammaticalityto-for

I read this sentence in a book:

Petrol is needed for running of a car.

I wonder if I could say "Petrol is needed to run a car."

Is the second sentence grammatically correct? If yes, then what is the difference between the two?

Best Answer

Yes, both are grammatically correct.

The first example is using a "gerund" of the verb "run" as an object of the preposition "for".

Gerund is:

A verb form which functions as a noun, in Latin ending in -ndum (declinable), in English ending in -ing (e.g. asking in do you mind my asking you?).

[Oxford English Dictionary]

Even though the first example has the same meaning as the second one, "Petrol is needed to run a car", "to-infinitive" is more than sufficient to express what you want and there is no need to rephrase it to a sentence with a preposition "for" and a gerund "running". Using to-infinitive is more concise.

BTW, it's better to use "drive" in place of "run":

To operate (a wheeled motorized vehicle). 'drive a car'

[Wiktionary]