I've been noticing the term "folx" appear in my transgender circles recently, but I'm not sure where it came from.
This article from the Boston Globe uses the term in an article addressing recent trends in gender-neutral neologisms, but only incidentally.
It doesn't seem – to me – like it's more gender-neutral than "folks," so I'm curious why the addition was made.
I'm looking around online, and there's a lot of speculation, but it's difficult to find anything definitive. Ideas I've seen include,
- that it just looks better,
- that it matches other neutral forms, like "Latinx,"
- that it's tonally in line with a punk theme
But these ideas can only explain why it's still in use, and not where it came from.
Is its origin known?
Best Answer
It seems notable that an earlier cited use of an "X" to denote gender neutrality is in the honorific Mx., which dates in writing to the 1970s.
According to this article in The Huffington Post, Latinx appears to have grown into use in the 2000's, and it appears from articles covering folx that it was also cited in writing as recently as the 21st century.
The OED has this to say about the etymology of "Mx."
The referenced sense 3 refers to "X" as it is commonly used in algebra to refer to an unknown entity, and allusive extensions.
Katherine Rosman in The New York Times describes the earliest found citation of the honorific:
This leads me to believe that "X" as a gender-neutral particle originated with "Mx.," functioning as a wildcard character of sorts, and was used similarly by the communities that coined "Latinx" and "folx."
It's possible that "folx" evolved independently of these other words that use "x" to denote gender-neutrality, but it would also be a significant coincidence. For this reason, I suspect that tracing earlier uses of gender-neutral "x" is the best we can do regarding an etymology of "folx."