I know that the phrase "to wash one's hands of" comes from Pilate in the Bible, Matthew 27:24:
When Pilate saw that he was getting nowhere, but that instead an uproar was starting, he took water and washed his hands in front of the crowd. "I am innocent of this man's blood," he said. "It is your responsibility!"
Matthew 27:24 New International Version
But in all of the versions I've looked at, the phrase "washing [one's] hands of" doesn't appear directly. Can anyone tell me when this phrase was first used outside of the Bible to mean "absolving oneself of responsibility" or similar?
Related, but not a dupe: Does "Should I wash my hands of this?" suggest a bribe?
Best Answer
There's a argument frame for some English verbs:
Some examples:
of has ablative use, and the template is normally restricted in meaning to a case where an undesirable thing is taken away. When an idiom gets grammaticalized, it's always best to use an available argument frame so people can pick up on the meaning easily.
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The hanging speech of Lady Jane Grey, given April 12, 1554 is an early attestation in print: